Practice Question For Salient Features

SWAYAM BATCH 2026 DEMO CLASS

LEGAL REASONING - Constitutional Law TOPIC- Salient Features (#223)

PASSAGE 1

The Constitution of India, adopted on 26th November 1949 and enforced on 26th January 1950, is the supreme law of the land. It establishes the framework of governance and outlines the fundamental rights, duties, and directive principles. The Indian Constitution is unique due to its length, flexibility, and a blend of various governance models.

One of the most significant features is its federal structure with a unitary bias. While India is a federal state with a division of powers between the Union and the States, provisions such as Article 356 (President’s Rule) and Article 249 (Parliament’s power to legislate on State subjects) showcase a strong unitary tilt during emergencies or national interests.

Another key aspect is the fundamental rights, enshrined in Part III (Articles 12-35), ensuring the protection of individual liberties against state action. However, these rights are subject to reasonable restrictions. Landmark cases such as Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) upheld the doctrine of the Basic Structure, ensuring that the core principles of the Constitution, including judicial independence and secularism, cannot be altered by constitutional amendments.

Additionally, the Constitution incorporates Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) under Part IV, inspired by the Irish Constitution. Though non-justiciable, they serve as guiding principles for the government to create policies ensuring social and economic justice. The interplay between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs has often led to judicial conflicts, as seen in Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980), where the Supreme Court ruled that neither can be given absolute priority over the other.

The Parliamentary system of governance, inspired by the British model, ensures collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha. The bicameral legislature, consisting of Rajya Sabha (Upper House) and Lok Sabha (Lower House), provides checks and balances. However, India also integrates features from the US system, such as a written Constitution, federalism, and judicial review.

Another defining aspect is Secularism, meaning the state remains neutral in religious matters while ensuring the right to freedom of religion (Articles 25-28). This feature has been reinforced in multiple rulings, including S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994), where the Supreme Court held that secularism is part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution.

Finally, the independent judiciary and integrated judicial system play a crucial role in upholding the rule of law. The Supreme Court, under Article 32, acts as the guardian of fundamental rights, while High Courts under Article 226 can issue writs even against private bodies when fundamental rights are violated.

These features make the Indian Constitution dynamic, adaptable, and resilient to socio-political changes, ensuring democracy, sovereignty, and justice for all citizens.

Q1.Which of the following statements best describes the federal nature of the Indian Constitution?

Select the Correct Answer Below for Q1

(A) India follows a purely federal structure where the Union and State governments function independently within their respective jurisdictions, with no overlap of powers.

(B) The Indian Constitution establishes a dual polity with separate powers for the Centre and the States, but it incorporates unitary features like Article 356, which allows the Centre to assume control over a State government in certain conditions.

(C) The Indian Constitution does not recognize federalism and follows a completely unitary system where all legislative powers are vested in the Parliament, similar to the UK.

(D) The Indian Constitution provides a flexible federal structure where states can amend the Constitution within their own jurisdiction without requiring approval from the Parliament.

Q2.The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) is significant in Indian constitutional law because:

Select the Correct Answer Below for Q2

(A) It introduced the Basic Structure Doctrine, ruling that Parliament cannot amend certain essential features of the Constitution, even under Article 368.

(B) It upheld the primacy of Fundamental Rights over Directive Principles of State Policy, ruling that the latter could not override individual rights.

(C) It ruled that Parliament has absolute power to amend the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, without any restrictions.

(D) It declared that the Constitution is entirely rigid and cannot be changed through any parliamentary process.

Q3. During a financial crisis, the Parliament of India passes a law imposing additional restrictions on trade and commerce, directly affecting businesses in various states. Several state governments challenge this law, arguing that trade and commerce are state subjects. The Supreme Court, however, upholds the law. Which of the following constitutional provisions might justify the Court’s decision?

Select the Correct Answer Below for Q3

(A) Article 21, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, allowing the Parliament to regulate economic policies affecting livelihoods.

(B) Article 245, which empowers the Parliament to legislate on any matter within the State List during emergencies declared under Article 352.

(C) Article 249, which enables Parliament to make laws on State List subjects if the Rajya Sabha declares it necessary in the national interest.

(D) Article 14, which guarantees equality before the law and prevents the Parliament from enacting trade restrictions that discriminate against specific states.

Q4. The Parliament of India enacts a law that grants absolute immunity to government officials from being prosecuted for actions taken during the discharge of their official duties. Several citizens challenge this law, arguing that it violates their fundamental rights. The Supreme Court, in its judgment, strikes down the law as unconstitutional. Which constitutional doctrine is most relevant in this scenario?

Select the Correct Answer Below for Q4

(A) Doctrine of Separation of Powers – The law was unconstitutional because it encroached upon judicial powers by preventing courts from reviewing executive actions.

(B) Doctrine of Basic Structure – The law violated the principles of judicial review and the rule of law, which form part of the Constitution’s basic structure.

(C) Doctrine of Pith and Substance – The law, though appearing to be about administrative immunity, was actually infringing on fundamental rights, making it unconstitutional.

(D) Doctrine of Colourable Legislation – The law was a disguised attempt to shield government officials from legal accountability under the pretense of administrative efficiency.

Q5. A private social media platform operating in India implements a policy requiring users to provide their Aadhaar details before accessing its services. Several users challenge this policy in the Supreme Court, claiming that it violates their fundamental rights. The Court rules that the policy is unconstitutional. Which of the following was the most likely reasoning of the Court?

Select the Correct Answer Below for Q5

(A) The policy violates the Right to Privacy, as recognized in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), by making Aadhaar linkage mandatory without valid legal backing.

(B) The policy violates the Right to Equality (Article 14), as it discriminates against individuals who do not possess an Aadhaar card.

(C) The policy infringes the Right to Freedom of Expression (Article 19(1)(a)), as it imposes an unreasonable restriction on access to social media.

(D) The policy is unconstitutional because it is not backed by a parliamentary law and thus violates the Doctrine of Rule of Law.

Q6. The Indian Constitution provides for a Parliamentary System of Government. Which of the following features supports this system?

Select the Correct Answer Below for Q6

(A) The President is the supreme executive authority and is not bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers.

{B) The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, and the government can be removed by a vote of no confidence.

(D) The Governor of a state is directly elected by the people and exercises discretionary powers independently of the Central Government.

Q7. The doctrine of Judicial Review allows the Supreme Court and High Courts to review laws and executive actions. Which of the following statements is not correct about judicial review in India?

Select the Correct Answer Below for Q7

(A) Judicial review in India is based on the principle that the Constitution is the supreme law of the land, and all laws must conform to it.

(B) The Supreme Court can strike down constitutional amendments that violate the Basic Structure of the Constitution.

(C) The power of judicial review is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution and is limited only to fundamental rights cases.

(D) Judicial review allows courts to review both legislative and executive actions to ensure they comply with constitutional provisions.

Q8. Parliament passes a constitutional amendment under Article 368, restricting the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts to review laws enacted by the legislature. The amendment states that any law passed by Parliament shall not be subject to judicial review, even if it violates fundamental rights. A group of citizens challenges the amendment, arguing that it violates the Basic Structure of the Constitution.

Based on established legal principles, what is the most appropriate outcome?

Select the Correct Answer Below for Q8

(A) The amendment is valid because Article 368 grants Parliament the absolute power to amend any part of the Constitution, including provisions related to judicial review.

(B) The amendment is unconstitutional because judicial review is a part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution and cannot be removed by a constitutional amendment.

(C) The amendment is partially valid, as Parliament can limit judicial review for certain laws, but it cannot completely take away the power of courts to review laws violating fundamental rights.

(D) The amendment is valid, as judicial review is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution and is only an implied power derived from various constitutional provisions.

Q9 The government of State X passes a law imposing a complete ban on the sale of agricultural land to non-farmers, aiming to prevent large corporations from acquiring farmland. A group of urban investors challenges the law, arguing that it violates their right to equality under Article 14 and the right to property under Article 300A. The High Court upholds the law, stating that it is a policy decision and does not warrant judicial interference. The investors appeal to the Supreme Court, claiming the law is unconstitutional.

Which of the following is the most appropriate ruling?

Select the Correct Answer Below for Q9

(A) The law is unconstitutional because it arbitrarily restricts land ownership, violating Article 14, and deprives individuals of their right to property without due process.

(B) The law is partially valid, but it must include provisions allowing exceptions in certain cases, such as for industrial development or public welfare.

(C) The law is unconstitutional because the right to property is a fundamental right, and any restriction on land ownership must pass the test of reasonableness.

(D) The law is valid because matters of land regulation fall under the State List, and the court cannot interfere in policy decisions unless there is a clear violation of fundamental rights.